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EdCET 2003 Key :: Physics



Part-C

Physics

(Marks : 50)

51

A particle acted upon by three forces 3N, 4N and 5N is in static equilibrium. What is the angle between the forces 3N and 4N?

  [      4      ]

(1)

300

(2)

450

(3)

600

(4)

900

52

The value of the divergence of the position vector in three dimensions is

  [      1       ]

(1)

3

(2)

Zero

(3)

1

(4)

2

53

Four particles of mass m each were placed at positions (0,0), (0,1), (1,1) and (1,0). What is the centre of mass of the system of these particles?

  [     2     ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54

The magnitude of a force varies with time as . The impulse of the force for the time between t = 1s to t = 5s is,

  [      3       ]

(1)

40 Ns

(2)

20 Ns

(3)

148 Ns

(4)

268 Ns

55

Two small spheres A and B of mass M and 2M, respectively, hang from the ceiling on strings of equal length. Sphere A is drawn aside so that it is raised to a height h0 as shown in the figure and then released. Sphere A collides with sphere B; they stick together and swing to a maximum height h equal to,

  [      1       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56

A 3 kg body which is initially at rest is moved to a distance of 6m by a constant horizontal force of magnitude 9N. The final velocity of the body is,

  [       2       ]

(1)

18 m/s

(2)

6 m/s

(3)

27 m/s

(4)

15 m/s

57

A racing car travels on a circular track of radius 250 m. If the car moves with a constant speed of 45 m/s, what is the angular speed of the car?

  [      3       ]

(1)

0.108 rad/s

(2)

0.208 rad/s

(3)

0.180 rad/s

(4)

0.09 rad/s

58

In planetary motion

  [       4       ]

(1)

The linear speed remains constant

(2)

Neither the angular momentum nor angular speed remains constant.

(3)

The angular speed remains constant

(4)

The total angular momentum remains constant

59

On a planet whose size is the same and mass 4 times as that of the earth, the amount of energy needed to lift a 2 kg mass vertically, upwards through 2m distance on the planet is (value of g on the surface of the earth = 10 m/s2)

  [       3       ]

(1)

180 Joule

(2)

80 Joule

(3)

160 Joule

(4)

320 Joule

60

The mean distance of the Mars from Sun is 1.524 times the distance of the earth from Sun. Compute the period of revolution of Mars around the Sun.

  [       1       ]

(1)

1.88 earth years

(2)

0.94 earth years

(3)

2.88 earth years

(4)

3.76 earth years

61

A large cylindrical vessel filled with water is kept on the floor. Water is allowed to flow out through a narrow opening situated at a height of 20 m from the bottom of the vessel. The velocity of water is, (assume g = 10 m/s2)

  [      2       ]

(1)

10 m/s

(2)

20 m/s

(3)

200 m/s

(4)

2 m/s

62

The stream lines in a steady flow of a fluid

  [       4      ]

(1)

can intersect with each other

(2)

can only be straight lines

(3)

cannot bunch together

(4)

cannot intersect with each other

63

How fast must a metre stick be moving if its length is observed to shrink to 0.5 m?

  [       2       ]

(1)

0.668 c (c is velocity of light in vaccum. )

(2)

0.866 c

(3)

0.686 c

(4)

0.686 c

64

If the total energy of a particle is exactly thrice its rest energy, then the velocity of the particle is,

  [       1       ]

(1)

(c is velocity of light in vaccum.)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65

The spring in the spring balance stretches by xm when a mass of m kg is suspended. If another mass M Kg is suspended from it, then the extension of the spring will be,

  [       3       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

66

The equation where A,T and are positive constants, represents a wave whose

  [      4      ]

(1)

amplitude is 2A

(2)

Velocity is in the negative x-direction

(3)

period is

(4)

speed is

67

A tuning fork of unknown frequency gives six beats with another fork of 409 Hz frequency. It gives two beats with a vibrator of frequency 413 Hz. The frequency of the tuning fork is,

  [      4      ]

(1)

407

(2)

403

(3)

411

(4)

415

68

In forced oscillation, when the frequency of the driving force is close to resonance,

  [      3      ]

(1)

the amplitude of oscillation alone increases

(2)

the energy of oscillation decreases

(3)

the energy and amplitude of oscillation increase

(4)

the amplitude of oscillation decreases but the energy increases

69

Helmholtz free energy is a function of

  [      2      ]

(1)

( P,T )

(2)

( V,T )

(3)

( P,S )

(4)

( V,S ) 

70

During a first-order phase transition the free energy of the system

  [       1       ]

(1)

remains constant

(2)

increases

(3)

decreases

(4)

diverges

71

For a system in which the number of particles is fixed, the reciprocal of the Kelvin temperature T is given by (Let P = pressure, V = volume, S = entropy and U = internal energy)

  [       4       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72

According to Wien's law the wave length at which a black body emits maximum energy is,

  [       2       ]

(1)

proportional to temperature

(2)

inversely proportional to temperature

(3)

independent of temperature

(4)

is an unknown function of temperature

73

One mole of an ideal gas at a temperature T undergoes an isothermal process in which the volume is doubled. The work done in this process is,

  [       1       ]

(1)

RT ln(2)

(2)

-RT ln (2)

(3)

RT ln (3/2)

(4)

-RT ln (3/2)

74

The efficiency of a Carnot engine increases with

  [       3       ]

(1)

increase in the temperature of the sink

(2)

increase in the heat given out by the engine

(3)

increase in the temperature of the source

(4)

decrease in the temperature of the source

75

The work done by an ideal gas in expanding from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 22 m3 at a constant pressure of 10N/m2 is,

  [       2       ]

(1)

100 Joules

(2)

200 Joules

(3)

440 Joules

(4)

220 Joules

76

In a Young's double slit experiment using light of wave length 6.0 10_7 m, the slits were 0.4 mm apart and the distance of the slits to the screen was 1.20 m. Therefore, the separation of the fringes is,

  [       1      ]

(1)

1.8 mm

(2)

1.8 cm

(3)

1.8 nm

(4)

1.8 m

77

In the Newton's rings formed by reflected light, the diameters of the bright rings are proportional to,

  [       3       ]

(1)

odd natural numbers

(2)

squares of odd natural numbers

(3)

square roots of odd natural numbers

(4)

square roots of natural numbers

78

Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum intensities in the resulting beam are,

  [      4       ]

(1)

5I, 4I

(2)

5I, 3I

(3)

9I, 3I

(4)

9I, I

79

The focal length of a zone plate is given by the relation

  [       4       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80

The system matrix of a lens is given by .Then its focal length is,

  [       2       ]

(1)

_20 cm

(2)

20 cm

(3)

10 cm

(4)

_10 cm

81

If and are the angles which the conjugate rays make with the axis, and are the refractive indices of the object and images spaces and Y1 and Y2 are the lengths of the object and of the image for the zone, the Abbe sine condition is given by,

  [       3       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82

A light of wavelength 5000 Ã… is incident on a quarter wave plate made of mica. The indices of refraction for the ordinary and extra-ordinary rays in mica are 1.58 and 1.59. Then the thickness of mica is,

  [       3       ]

(1)

1.25 10_2 cm

(2)

2.5 10_3 cm

(3)

1.25 10_3 cm

(4)

1.25 mm

83

The potential at a point A in an electric field is 10V higher than at point B. If a negative charge q = _2C is moved from point A to point B, then the potential energy of this charge will,

  [       4       ]

(1)

decrease by 20J

(2)

decrease by 5J

(3)

increase by 5J

(4)

increase by 20J

84

The torque on a molecule which has a dipole moment , when kept in an external field is

  [       3       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85

A wire of resistance 72 is cut into two halves. If a potential difference of 120V is applied across one-half of the wire, the resistance dissipation is,

  [       2       ]

(1)

200 W

(2)

400 W

(3)

800 W

(4)

600 W

86

In a coil an emf of 1 volt is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 100 A/s. The coefficient of self-induction of the coil is,

  [      1       ]

(1)

0.01 Henry

(2)

10 Henry

(3)

0.0001 Henry

(4)

0.001 Henry

87

An example for diamagnetic substance is,

  [       3       ]

(1)

Mn

(2)

Fe3O4

(3)

NaCl

(4)

CuCl2

88

The ratings of the primary of step-up transformer are 240 V and 5 A. If the voltage at the secondary is 4800V, then the current through the secondary is,

  [       2      ]

(1)

20A

(2)

0.25A

(3)

0.5A

(4)

1A.

89

When a current of 1A passes through a coil of radius 4cm having 50 turns, magnetic induction at its centre is 210_5 T. When the radius is increased to 8 cm and the number of turns to 200, the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil will be,

  [      1      ]

(1)

4 10_5 T

(2)

1 10_5 T

(3)

2 10_5 T

(4)

8 10_5 T

90

The following substance exhibits the property of hysterisis,

  [      4       ]

(1)

H2O

(2)

NaCl

(3)

CuCl2

(4)

Fe3O4

91

Assuming the value of compton wavelength to be 0.0025 nm, the percentage change in the wavelength dueto compton effect for radiation with wavelength of 250 nm and a scattering angle of 600 is,

  [      4       ]

(1)

1 10_ 4

(2)

1 10_3

(3)

2.510_5

(4)

5 10_ 4

92

After two hours, one-sixteenth of the starting amount of a certain radioactive isotope remained undecayed The half-life of the isotope is,

  [      3       ]

(1)

1 hour

(2)

45 minutes

(3)

30 minutes

(4)

15 minutes

93

If 1 mg of garbage is converted into energy with 100% efficiency over a time period of 5s, then the total amount of power released is, (speed of light = 3108 ms_1)

  [       1      ]

(1)

1 .81010 W

(2)

9 1010 W

(3)

6 1010 W

(4)

1.21010 W

94

The energy released in the fission of 1g of U235 assuming the amount of energy released per fission to be 235 Mev is, (Avogadros number = 61023 mole_ 1)

  [      2       ]

(1)

1.6 1010 J

(2)

9.6 1010J

(3)

6.0 1010 J

(4)

2.35 1010 J

95

In the given proton-proton cycle, the given out radiation is,  MeV + radiation,

  [       3       ]

(1)

_ rays

(2)

_ rays

(3)

_ rays

(4)

cosmic rays,

96

When high energy electrons strike a copper metal target, the emitted radiation is,

  [       4       ]

(1)

_ rays

(2)

_ rays

(3)

_ rays

(4)

X _ rays

97

If and are the current gains in the CB and CE configurations, respectively, of a transistor circuit, then

  [       2       ]

(1)

2

(2)

1

(3)

(4)

98

The overall voltage gain when three identical amplifier stages are connected is 125, then the voltage gain of an individual stage is,

  [      3      ]

(1)

(2)

25

(3)

5

(4)

99

The Boolean equation of NAND gate is,

  [      1       ]

(1)

X =

(2)

X =

(3)

X =

(4)

X = A + B

100

The binary equivalent of (0.6875)10 is

  [       4       ]

(1)

0.1001

(2)

0.1101

(3)

0.0110

(4)

0.1011

Chemistry

(Marks : 50)

101

What is the wavelength of least energetic spectral line in the Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum? (R = Rydberg constant).

  [      2       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

102

An element has 16 electrons in its M-shell. The element is ______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

Fe

(2)

Mn

(3)

Cu

(4)

Ni

103

Which of the following is true?

  [      2       ]

(1)

The number of electrons present in "L" shell of nitrogen atom is 6.

(2)

The energy of 3d orbital is higher than the energy of 3p orbital.

(3)

The four quantum numbers of valence electron of sodium are: n = 3; l = 1; m = 0 ; s = .

(4)

2s orbital has two spherical nodal planes.

104

75 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 25 ml of 0.2M NaOH are mixed. What is the pH of resultant solution?

  [      3      ]

(1)

0.7

(2)

1.4

(3)

1.0

(4)

2.0

105

The total number of sigma bonds present in ethyne molecule is ______________.

  [      1       ]

(1)

3

(2)

4

(3)

1

(4)

2

106

The volume occupied by an individual molecule of a gas is 210_23 cm3. The Van der Waal's constantb' (in cm3. mol_1) of this gas is ______________.

  [      3      ]

(1)

2 10_23

(2)

12.04

(3)

48.184

(4)

12.04 10_23

107

Which of the following is a strong base?

  [      1       ]

(1)

(CH3)2NH

(2)

CH3NH2

(3)

NH3

(4)

(CH3)3N

108

The equation of law of corresponding states is given by ______________. (= reduced pressure; = reduced volume; = reduced temperature)

  [      1       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

109

For mono atomic gases, the ratio of heat capacities is equal to ______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

0.6

(2)

1.33

(3)

2.66

(4)

1.67

110

The hybridisation of carbon in methyl carbonium ion is ______________.

  [      2       ]

(1)

sp

(2)

sp2

(3)

sp3

(4)

dsp2

111

The molar enthalpies of combustion of C2H2 (g), C (graphite) and H2 (g) are _1299.6, _393.5 and _285.8 KJ mol_1, respectively. The standard enthalpy of formation (in KJ mol-1) of C2H2 (g) is _____________.

  [      3       ]

(1)

620.3

(2)

1240.6

(3)

226.8

(4)

453.6

112

Which of the following contains S-O-S bonds in its structure?

  [      4       ]

(1)

H2S2O3

(2)

H2S2O8

(3)

H2S2O6

(4)

H2S2O7

113

With respect to the reaction , the amount (in grams) of K2Cr2O7 (mol. wt = 294.18) required to prepare a 100 ml of its solution of 0.05 N concentration is

  [      3       ]

(1)

2.9418

(2)

1.4709

(3)

0.2452

(4)

0.4903

114

Which of the following is not true?

  [      4       ]

(1)

SO3 is a Lewis acid

(2)

SO3 reacts with PCl5 to form POCl3, Cl2 and SO2

(3)

SO3 dissolves in concentrated H2SO4 to form oleum.

(4)

SO3 reacts with HBr to form HBrO3

115

The IUPAC name of (CH3)3 C _ CH = CH2 is ______________.

  [      1       ]

(1)

3,3 dimethyl _ 1 _ butene

(2)

3,3,3 trimethyl _1_ propene

(3)

1,1,1trimethyl _3_ propene

(4)

2,2 dimethyl _3 _ butene

116

The hybridisation of S in SCl2 is ______________.

  [      2      ]

(1)

sp

(2)

sp3

(3)

sp2

(4)

sp3d

117

The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 10_6 mol. lit_1 at 27oC. What is its Ksp (in mol3.lit_3)?

  [      3      ]

(1)

10_12

(2)

4 10_12

(3)

4 10_18

(4)

10_18

118

Newmann projection formula for 1,2 dichloro ethane is represented as ______________.

  [      3      ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

119

Ionization energy is highest for an element with electronic configuration ______________.

  [      3       ]

(1)

[Ne] 3s2 3p1

(2)

[Ne] 3s1

(3)

[Ne] 3s2 3p3

(4)

[Ne] 3s2 3p2

120

922 g of NaOH solution contains 40 g of NaOH. What is the mole fraction of NaOH in this solution? (Mol. wt. of NaOH = 40; Mol .wt. of H2O = 18)

  [      4       ]

(1)

0.05

(2)

0.2

(3)

0.5

(4)

0.02

121

The functional isomer of glyceraldehyde is ______________.

  [  none  ]

(1)

methyl acetate

(2)

ethyl acetate

(3)

diethyl ether

(4)

propyl acetate

122

Some quantity of PCl5 was heated in a 10 litre vessel at 250OC to obtain the equilibrium At equilibrium the vessel contains 0.1 mole of PCl5, 0.2 mole of PCl3 and 0.2 mole of Cl2. The equilibrium constant (in mol. lit_1) of the reaction is ______________.

  [     3      ]

(1)

0.02

(2)

0.4

(3)

0.04

(4)

0.025

123

Hydrolysis of CH3CH2MgX gives ______________.

  [     1     ]

(1)

C2H6

(2)

C3H8

(3)

CH4

(4)

C2H4

124

In a chemical reaction, the rate of forward and rate of backward reactions are given by Rf and Rb, respectively. At equilibrium ______________.

  [      2     ]

(1)

Rf = 2Rb

(2)

Rf= Rb

(3)

Rf = 0.5 Rb

(4)

Rf=

125

Which of the following is an example for metallic carbide?

  [      1       ]

(1)

tantalum carbide

(2)

silicon carbide

(3)

calcium carbide

(4)

aluminium carbide

126

The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ----2NH3(g) is K. Then the equilibrium constant for the reaction NH3 (g) --- N2(g) + H2(g) will be equal to ______________.

  [     4      ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

127

Quartz is a crystalline form of ______________.

  [      2       ]

(1)

silicon

(2)

silicon dioxide

(3)

silicon carbide

(4)

sodium silicate

128

An alkene 'X on ozonolysis gave propanone and 2-methyl propanal. The structure of X is _________.

  [      2       ]

(1)

CH3CH = C(CH3) CH2CH3

(2)

(CH3)2C = CHCH(CH3)2

(3)

(CH3)2 CHCH = CHCH3

(4)

(CH3)2C = C(CH3)2

129

In the structure of Fe3 (CO)12 molecule, the number of CO molecules present between two nearest Featoms is ______________.

  [      3       ]

(1)

3

(2)

4

(3)

2

(4)

1

130

is an example of ______________.

  [      3       ]

(1)

trans isomer

(2)

cis isomer

(3)

E-isomer

(4)

Z-isomer

131

The reagent used for selectively converting an alkyne into a trans alkene is ______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

Lindlar catalyst

(2)

Sodium dithionate

(3)

NaBH4

(4)

Na / Liquid NH3

132

An alkene on treating with hot acidified KMnO4 gave two molecules of ethanoic acid. The alkene is______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

1-butene

(2)

2-methyl propene

(3)

2-pentene

(4)

2-butene

133

What is the oxidation state of P in H3PO5?

  [      3       ]

(1)

+7

(2)

+6

(3)

+5

(4)

+4

134

The molecular formula of aluminium azide is ______________.

  [      2       ]

(1)

Al N3 H6

(2)

Al N9

(3)

Al N3

(4)

Al N

135

Which of the following is used in welding and cutting of metals?

  [       4       ]

(1)

CH4

(2)

C2H6

(3)

C2H4

(4)

C2H2

136

Ammonia is reacted with excess chlorine to form HCl and X. Hydrolysis of X gave ammonia and______________.

  [      1       ]

(1)

HOCl

(2)

Cl2O

(3)

HClO3

(4)

Cl2O7

137

The hybridisation of Cl in perchloric acid is ______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

dsp2

(2)

sp

(3)

sp2

(4)

sp3

138

P2O5 is heated with carbon. The products obtained are elemental phosphorus and X. Which of the following is X?

  [      2       ]

(1)

CO2

(2)

CO

(3)

P2(CO3)5

(4)

P2(CO3)3

139

The species involved in the nitration of benzene is ______________.

  [      2       ]

(1)

carbonium ion

(2)

nitronium ion

(3)

carbanion

(4)

nitrate ion

140

Coordinate covalent bond is not present in ______________.

  [  1 and 4  ]

(1)

NH4+

(2)

K3 [Fe(CN)6]

(3)

H3N BF3

(4)

NH3

141

Hexagonal close packed arrangement of atoms is characterised by ______________.

  [      1       ]

(1)

ABABAB......

(2)

ABCABCABC.....

(3)

ABABCAB.....

(4)

ABCABABC

142

Which of the following is an example of Friedel- Crafts reaction?

  [      3       ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

143

AgZn with a "number of valence electrons / number of atoms" ratio equal to belongs to _______ phase.

[      3      ]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

144

Reduction of napthalene in the presence of at high temperature and pressure gives _____________.

[      1       ]

(1)

decalin

(2)

pthalic acid

(3)

napthaquinone

(4)

tetra hydro napthalene

145

Which of the following enzyme converts C6H12O6 to ethanol?

  [      4      ]

(1)

invertase

(2)

diastase

(3)

maltase

(4)

zymase

146

Which of the following alloy of iron is useful for making permanent magnets?

  [      2       ]

(1)

chromium steel

(2)

alnico

(3)

duriron

(4)

manganese steel

147

Soap is made by ______________.

  [      4       ]

(1)

esterification of glycol

(2)

hydrogenation of fats

(3)

hydrogenation of oils

(4)

alkaline hydrolysis of triglycerides

148

The Hume-Rothery ratio for the intermetallic compound Cu9Al4 is ______________.

  [       1       ]

(1)

21:13

(2)

3:2

(3)

7:4

(4)

4:7

149

Which of the following on hydrolysis gives straight chain silicone polymers?

  [       2      ]

(1)

(CH3)3 SiCl

(2)

(CH3)2SiCl2

(3)

(CH3) SiCl3

(4)

SiCl4

150

Which of the following is not true?

  [      3      ]

(1)

Cadmium amalgam is used in Weston standard cell.

(2)

Cadmium sulphide is used as yellow pigment in the preparation of oil-water colours.

(3)

German silver is an alloy of cadmium.

(4)

Wood's alloy contains bismuth, lead, tin and cadmium.